Here's a proof that State Citizens are NON-RESIDENT ALIENS with regard to the United States corporate Democracy. The definitions are from Black's Law Dict. the 6th ed.

ALIEN: "A foreign born person who has not qualified as a citizen of the country. Any person not a citizen or a national of the United States. 8 U.S.C.A. 1101".

Now you gotta realize that California or Texas or Florida, etc. are FOREIGN to the United States gov't., since their jurisdiction is SEPARATE from each other. US doesn't have jurisdiction in California and California doesn't have jurisdiction in US.

PLUS, Title 8 of US Code was NOT enacted as positive law, so it is NOT LAW but just a CODE. Now it is a prima facie evidence of the law, but that can be REBUTTED.

More definitions:

NON-RESIDENCE: "Residence beyond the limits of the particular jurisdiction."

NON-RESIDENT: "One who does not reside within jurisdiction in question."

NON-RESIDENT ALIEN: "One who is neither a resident nor a citizen of the United States. Citizenship is determined under...U.S. Code Title 8."

So there you have it. And you thought that RESIDENCE means living somewhere, such as in California. Obviously it DOESN'T. Residency means living WITHIN some JURISDICTION. And what jurisdiction do you think a municipal CORPORATION has? Obviously NOT over EVERYONE in certain area, but rather ONLY over certain persons within an area.

So you may live within a CITY, COUNTY, or STATE territorial limits, and STILL NOT be a resident. And that's because municipal corporations exercise STATUTORY, not COMMON LAW jurisdiction (just ask a judge in court what kind of jurisdiction he acts under). FYI common law is a real law which applies to EVERYBODY, while statutes and codes ONLY apply to certain persons.

So with respect to the United States, State Citizen or Inhabitant is a NON-RESIDENT ALIEN, because he is not a 14th Amendment (federal) citizen, and does not reside under United States (federal) jurisdiction. For example, California is under jurisdiction of State of California, NOT under jurisdiction of the United States.

So those living in California are NON-RESIDENTS with respect to the United States. And if they also aren't 14th Am. US citizens, then they also are ALIENS, and so making them NON-RESIDENT ALIENS.

And lastly, you gotta realize that United States (federal) citizens and residents are PARTICIPATING in bankruptcy of the US gov't, which makes their property a COLLATERAL for the $20 trillion federal debt, so they are NOT protected by Public (common) Law (pre-1933 laws and court decissions). So THE ONLY people in USA who can claim protection of Public Law are NON-RESIDENTS (don't live within federal jurisdiction), and ALIENS (aren't federal US citizens).

And the tax form that non-resident aliens file, is not W-9, but W-8BEN, which identifies them as "the beneficial owners of any amount subject to withholding". I.e. persons that are NOT participating in the bankruptcy of the United States gov't.

BTW, the "beneficial owner" means an EQUITABLE TITLE HOLDER. You see, since the United States is bankrupt and there's no REAL money in circulation, EVERYTHING is in COMMERCE, where an absolute title was SPLIT into a LEGAL title and EQUITABLE title. Legal title holder gets to USE the property, while the equitable title holder CONTROLS and REGULATES that property.

So while you get the legal title to property, the US and/or the State secretly holds the equitable title, which gives it the authority to TAX and REGULATE that property. BUT when you're a non-resident alien, you are OUTSIDE of their bankrupt zone, so you get the equitable title (they call it 'beneficial owner'), which is TAX EXEMPT and should also be exempt from statutory regulation.